Hi IMPLAN, I've gone back and forth on feeling confused and not confused on this question, so I thought I'd come right to the horse's mouth. Is the LPP = SAM equivalent to REMI's export base percentage? I am wanting to use some back of the envelope calculations in [url=http://blog.masslive.com/localbuzz_impact/2009/04/metropolitan_economies_report.pdf]this paper[/url] (page 11) to do some back-of-the-envelope estimates for [url=http://implan.com/V4/index.php?option=com_kunena&func=view&catid=84&id=15565&Itemid=35#15641]an analysis[/url] I'm doing and would like to confirm. In other words, in an econometric model is setting the LPP = SAM value (equal to the RPC too) the best way to get an estimate of the portion of the impact that is expected to be leaked in the study area in the industry in question? Does this have only to do with the industry's purchasing inputs, or is there some estimate of the likelihood of local substitution in there as well? Put another way, does the LPP=SAM value include any reductions in impact based on ideas about what functions would be taken over by other similar firms in the region should the firm being modeled cease to exist? Please let me know if this question is unintelligible. Thank you!
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