I have a question that would help with an analysis but is also theoretical. Suppose one wanted to measure a 1% decline in output for an entire region. To do so, that person could run a contribution analysis and input a -1% industry change for all 500+ IMPLAN sectors (though incredibly time consuming), right?
Would such an analysis produce the same results as applying a -1% change to the values in the region's total industry output, employment, etc. from the industry details table, where all the impacts would be direct with no indirect and induced impacts? For example, if a region's total output in 2018 were $100 B, would a -1% contribution be -$1 B in direct impact and zero in indirect and induced impacts? Appreciate any insights.
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